NEET Mock Test: Battleground 2

1. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and the 25th division of the circular scale coincides with the reference level of the main scale. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is: 0.521 cm 0.529 cm 0.053 cm 0.525 cm

2. A simple pendulum of period T has a metal bob which is negatively charged. If it is allowed to oscillate above a positively charged metal plate, its period will: Remain equal to T Be less than T Be greater than T Be infinite

3. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 Ω and an output impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is: 1000 1250 100 500

4. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with acceleration 1.0 ms –2. If g = 10 m 8600 N 9680 N 11000 N 1200 N

5. At constant volume, temperature of a cylinder is increased then: Collision on walls will be less Collision frequency will increase Collision will be in straight line Collision will not change

6. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by a convex lens on a screen placed on the focal plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction equal to 0° 15° 30° 60°

7. The acceleration due to gravity on planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2 m on the surface of planet A. What is the height of the same jump on planet B? 18 m 6 m 2/3 m 219 m

8. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean position are v1 and v2, respectively. Its time period is: 2π√ [ (x1)2 + (x2)2] / [ (v1)2 + (v2)2] 2π√ [ (x2)2 - (x1)2] / [ (v1)2 + (v2)2] 2π√ [ (x2)2 - (x1)2] / [ (v1)2 - (v2)2] 2π√[ (v1)2 - (v2)2] / [ (x1)2 - (x2)2]

9. A polarizer is used to reduce intensity of light. produce polarized light. increase intensity of light produce unpolarized light.

10. The wet-ability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on: Density Angle of contact between surface and liquid Viscosity Surface tension

11. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity “v”. It reaches up to a maximum height of (3v2) /4g with respect to the initial position. The object is: Solid sphere Hollow sphere Disc Ring

12. A plane polarised light coming out of a polarizer with intensity I0 enters an analyser kept at an angle of 45° with the polarizer. What will be the intensity of the light coming out of the analyser? Io Io/2 Io/4 Zero

13. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be: 1 4 3 2

14. The isothermal elasticity of a gas is equal to: Density Volume Pressure Specific heat

15. . If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by [Ma Lb Tc ], then the physical quantity will be: Force if, a = 0, b = –1, c = –2 Pressure if, a = 1, b = –1, c = –2 Velocity if, a = 1, b = 0, c = –1 Acceleration if, a = 1, b = 1, c = –2

16. . Velocity of light in glass whose refractive index with respect to air is 1.5 is 2 × 108 m/s. Also in certain unknown liquid the velocity of light is found to be 2.5 × 108 m/s. The refractive index of the liquid with respect to air is 0.64 0.80 1.20 1.44

17. A semi-conducting device is connected in a series circuit with a resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be: A p-n junction An intrinsic semi-conductor A p-type semi-conductor An n-type semiconductor

18. The electric potential at a point on the axis of an electric dipole depends on the distance r of the point from the dipole as: ∝ 1/r ∝ 1/r 2 ∝ r ∝ 1/r 3

19. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be: nB n 2 B 2nB 2n 2 B

20. From the graph between current i and voltage V shown below, identify the portion corresponding to negative resistance: DE CD BC AB

21. Workdone in increasing the size of a soap bubble from radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm–1) 0.2π mJ 2π mJ 0.4π mJ 4π mJ

22. A particle of mass m is moving with a uniform velocity v1. It is given an impulse such that its velocity becomes v2. The impulse is equal to: m[|v2| – |v1|] 1/2 [ (v2)2 - (v1)2 ] m[v2 + v1] m[v2 + v1]

23. . A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, λ. The stopping potential for photoelectric current for this light is 3V0. If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface for photoelectric effect is: λ/4 λ/6 6λ 4λ

24. A sound of wavelength λ travelling in a medium with a speed of v m/s enters into another medium where its speed is 2v m/s. Wavelength of the sound wave in the second medium is λ λ/2 2λ 4λ

25. . A man is sitting with folded hands on a revolving table. Suddenly, he stretches his arms, Angular speed of the table would: Increase Decrease Remain the same Nothing can be said

26. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10I. The value of ‘n’ is: 20 11 10 9

27. Water with a mass of 2.0 kg is held at constant volume in a container while 10.0 kJ of energy is slowly added by a flame. The container is not well insulated, and as a result 2.0 kJ of energy leaks out to the surroundings. What is the temperature of water? 0.28°C 27°C 0.96°C 1.27°C

28. Two heat engines A and B have their sources at 1000 K and 1100 K and their sinks are at 500 K and 400 K respectively. What is true about their efficiencies? ηA =ηB ηA >ηB ηA < ηB cannot predict

29. . Statement I: A car is moving in a horizontal circular plane with varying speed, then the net frictional force is neither pointing towards the radial direction nor along the tangential direction and Statement II: Components of the frictional force are providing the necessary tangential and centripetal acceleration, in the above situation. Statement I is true, Statement II is true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I Statement I is true, Statement II is true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I Statement I is true, Statement II is false Statement I is false, Statement II is true

30. Through which character we can distinguish the light waves from sound waves: Interference Refraction Polarization Reflection

31. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating: Does not affect resistance of p-n junction Affects only forward resistance Affects only reverse resistance Affects the overall V-I characteristics of P-N junction

32. A charged pendulum bob is oscillating in a region influenced by the gravitational and electrostatic field. The two fields are anti parallel to each other. The charge on the bob is negative. If the electric field is switched off the time period of small oscillations of the pendulum will: Increase Decrease Remain unchanged Depends on the magnitudes of the field

33. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 10 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed is: 20 rpm 40 rpm 5 rpm 10 rpm

34. An object falls from a height of 10 m above the ground. After striking the ground it loses 50% of its kinetic energy. The height upto which the object can rebounce from the ground is: 7.5 m 10 m 2.5 m 5 m

35. A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery, the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor in nJ is 15 7.5 0.3 150

36. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (vertically). If the acceleration of system is g 8 , then the ratio of masses is: 8 : 1 9 : 7 4 : 3 5 : 3

37. If i1 = 3 sin wt and i2 = 4 cos wt, then i3 is: 5 sin (wt + 53°) 5 sin (wt + 37°) 5 sin (wt + 45°) 5 cos (wt + 53°)

38. A car of mass 1600 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 160 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is 45 m/s 40 m/s 20 m/s 80 m/s

39. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h from rest without sliding is: √10gh / 7 √gh √6gh/ 5 √4gh/3

40. A charge of 40 μC is given to a capacitor having capacitance C = 10 μF. The stored energy in ergs is: 80 × 10−6 800 80 8000

41. A car moving at a speed of 72 km/hr can be stopped in a distance of 40 m after brakes are pressed. If the same car is moving at a speed of 144 km/hr then after how much distance it will stop after braking? 80 m 160 m 200m 240m

42. If two balls are projeted at angles of 45° and 60° and the maximum heights reached are same, what is the ratio of initial velocities? 2 : 3 3 : 2 √2 : √3 √3 : √2

43. In which of the following cases the potential energy is defined non-conservative forces only conservative forces only both conservative and non-conservative forces none of these

44. An electron revolving around the nucleus with an angular momentum (L) has a magnetic moment (e/m) L (e/2m) L (2e/m) L (e/2π m) L

45. The magnetic flux across a loop of resistance 10 Ω is given by 10t 2 - 8t + 6 Wb. How much current is induced in the loop after 2s? 3.2 A 2.2 A 4.2 A 1.2 A

46. An alternating voltage source is connected in series with a resistor R and an inductor L. If the potential drop across resistor is 120 V and across inductor is 50 V then the supply voltage is 170 V 70 V 130V 110V

Voltage leads the current by 60° Voltage leads the current by 30° Current leads the voltage by 30° Current leads the voltage by 60°

48. The acceleration of electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 4π²m/ℏ³ ℏ²/4π²mr ℏ²/4π²m²r³ m²ℏ²/4π²r³

49. A radioactive substance disintegrates to 1/64 of its initial value after 120 s. The half life of this substance 5 s 10 s 20 s 30 s

50. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 × 10¹⁰ Hz with amplitude of 48 V·m⁻¹. The wavelength of the wave is: 24 × 10⁻¹⁰ m 24 × 10⁸ m 1.5 × 10⁸ m 1.5 × 10⁻² m

51. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture? 16 : 1 2 : 1 1 : 4 4 : 1

52. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect? Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution. Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the least common. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.

53. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital is equal to: 2 √3h h √6h √2h

54. Which of the following is correct with respect to –I effect of the substituents? [R = alkyl] –NH2 > –OR > –F –NR2 < – OR < –F –NH2 < –OR < –F –NR2 > –OR > –F

55. The species, having bond angles of 120° is: PH3 CIF3 NCl3 BCl3

56. The species Ar, K⁺ and Ca²⁺ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase? Ca²⁺ < K⁺ < Ar K⁺ < Ar < Ca²⁺ Ar < K⁺ < Ca²⁺ Ca²⁺ < Ar < K⁺

57. The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2.42 × 10⁻³ g·L⁻¹ at 298 K. The value of solubility product (Ksp) will be [Given: molar mass of BaSO₄ = 233 g·mol⁻¹] 1.08 × 10⁻¹⁰ mol²·L⁻² 1.08 × 10⁻¹² mol²·L⁻² 1.08 × 10⁻¹⁴ mol²·L⁻² 1.08 × 10⁻⁸ mol²·L⁻²

58. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (R = 8.314 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹) 342 kJ·mol⁻¹ 269 kJ·mol⁻¹ 34.7 kJ·mol⁻¹ 15.1 kJ·mol⁻¹

59. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it? I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius) Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ (increasing ionic size) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)

60. Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current? Hydrochloric acid, HCl Ammonia, NH3 Fructose, C6H12O6 Acetic acid, C2H4O2

61. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol·L⁻¹·s⁻¹ at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol·L⁻¹·s⁻¹ at 20 seconds. 44.1 s 54.1 s 24.1 s 34.1 s

62. In acidic medium, H₂O₂ changes Cr₂O₇²⁻ to CrO₅ which has two (—O—O—) bonds. What is the oxidation state of Cr in CrO₅? +5 +3 +6 -10

63. The reaction of H2O2 with hydrogen sulphide is an example of ………… reaction: addition oxidation reduction redox acidic

64. Which property of colloidal solution is independent of charge on the colloidal particles? Coagulation Electrophoresis Electro-osmosis Tyndall Effect

65. In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect? It is rendered passive by nitric acid. It forms Be2C. Its salts rarely hydrolyze Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.

66. A button cell used in watches functions as follows: Zn(s) + Ag₂O(s) + H₂O(l) → 2Ag(s) + Zn²⁺(aq) + 2OH⁻(aq) If half-cell potentials are: Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Zn(s) E° = –0.76 V Ag₂O(s) + H₂O(l) + 2e⁻ → 2Ag(s) + 2OH⁻(aq) E° = 0.34 V The cell potential will be: 1.10 V 0.42 V 0.84 V 1.34 V

67. The correct order of increasing bond length of C—H, C—O, C—C and C=C is: C—C < C=C < C—O < C—H C—O < C—H < C—C < C=C C—H < C—O < C—C < C=C C—H < C=C < C—O < C—C

68. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules? Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2 F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

69. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It’s atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium? [Xe] 4f⁸ 6s² [Xe] 4f⁹ 5s¹ [Xe] 4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s² [Xe] 4f⁶ 5d² 6s²

70. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant, what volume will the oxygen occupy at 760 mm pressure? 365 ml 2 ml 10 ml 20 ml

71. Following compounds are given: Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform? (i), (iii) and (iv) Only (ii) (i), (ii) and (iii) (i) and (ii)

72. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to: Interstitial positions F-centres Schottky defect Frenkel defect

73. A solution has 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm of Hg for pentane and 120 mm of Hg for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be: 0.549 0.200 0.786 0.478

74. One mole of Al³⁺ is discharged completely using how much charge? 3F 1F 0.3F 2F

75. In which of the following molecules/ions BF₃, NO₂⁻, NH₂⁻ and H₂O, the central atom is sp² hybridised? NO₂⁻ and NH₂⁻ NH₂⁻ and H₂O NO₂⁻ and H₂O BF₃ and NO₂⁻

76. Consider the following reaction and the product Z is: CH3CH2O—CH2—CH3 CH3—CH2—O—SO3H CH3CH2OH CH2=CH2

77. . Which of the following is an ideal solution? Ethanol + water Ethanol + benzene Nitric acid + water Benzene + toluene

78. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by: ΔG⁄ΔS ΔG⁄ΔH ΔS⁄ΔG ΔH⁄ΔG

79. Among the following compounds, one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is benzoic acid nitrobenzene toluene benzene

80. At 25°C, the dissociation constant of a base, BOH is 1.0 × 10⁻¹². The concentration of hydroxyl ions in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the base would be: 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ mol·L⁻¹ 1.0 × 10⁻⁵ mol·L⁻¹ 1.0 × 10⁻⁶ mol·L⁻¹ 1.0 × 10⁻⁷ mol·L⁻¹

81. If the enthalpy change for transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ·mol⁻¹ at 27°C, what is the entropy change (ΔS) for the process? 1.0 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ 0.1 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ 100 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ 10 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹

82. Baeyer’s reagent is : Acidic potassium permanganate solution Acidic potassium dichromate solution Cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium permanganate Hot, concentrated solution of potassium permanganate

83. Which indicator is used in the titration of sodium hydroxide against oxalic acid and what is the colour change at the end point? Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow Alkaline KMnO4, colourless to pink Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour

84. From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion. Rusting of iron object Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of water Tarnishing of silver Development of green coating on copper and bronze ornaments

85. Identify the incorrect statement about PCl5. PCl5 possesses two different Cl – P – Cl bond angles All five P – Cl bonds are identical in length PCl5 exhibits sp3d hybridisation PCl5 consists of five P – Cl (sigma) bonds

86. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)

87. Chloramphenicol is an antifertility drug antihistaminic antiseptic and disinfectant. antibiotic-broad spectrum

88. Nylon is an example of polyamide polythene polyester polysaccharide

710 K 910 K 1110 K 510 K

rate = k[B₂] rate = k[B₂]² rate = k[A]²[B]² rate = k[A]²[B]

91. Given below are two statements Statement I: SF6 exists but SH6 does not. Statement II: dp – pp bonding cannot take place in SH6. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

91. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: SF₆ exists but SH₆ does not.
Statement II: dπ–pπ bonding cannot take place in SH₆.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true Both statement I and Statement II are true. Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is correct but statement II is false.

92. What is the correct IUPAC name of the following coordination compound. [Cr(py)3Cl3] Trichlorotripyridinium chromium (III) Tripyridiniumtrichloro chromium (III) Trichlorotripyridine chromium (III) Trichlorotripyridine chromium (II)

93. The incorrect statements among the following is: Glucose on oxidation with Br2/H2O gives gluconic acid. The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine. The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called furanose structure The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose are anomers of each other.

94. How many isomers are possible for coordination complex [Co(NH3)5(NO2)](NO3)2 6 10 4 12

95. Match List I with List II. (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

96. Indicate the coordination number and oxidation state of the complex [Ni(en)2 (C2O4)]NO2. 6 and 2 2 and 2 4 and 3 6 and 3

97. Give the IUPAC nomenclature of the final product(z) formed in the following reactions. Aniline Chlorobenzene Benzamide Benzoyl chloride

98. Match list I with List II (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

99. Which of the following statement(s) is correct. [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is diamagnetic but [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻ is paramagnetic. Fe³⁺ ions always form tetrahedral complexes. In a compound with an octahedral structure, the dxy and dyz orbitals of a metal ion should be vacant. The ferric ammonium alum is a complex salt.

100. The fluoride of xenon with zero dipole moment is XeF6 XeO3 XeF4 XeF2

101. Which is less general in characters as compared to genus? Family Class Division Species

102. Which one is not a hot spot of India? Western Ghats Aravalli Hills Indo-Burma Himalaya

103. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzyme is: Mesosome Lysosome Microsome Ribosome

104. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of: Cucumber Guava Plum Brinjal

105. In which one of the following processes, carbon dioxide is not released? Aerobic respiration in animals Alcoholic fermentation Lactate fermentation Aerobic respiration in plants

106. In Bt Cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to: Alkaline pH of the insect gut Acidic pH of the insect gut Action of gut microorganism Presence of conversion factors in insect gut

107. Which of the given part of oxysome is a peripheral membrane protein and contains the site for ATP synthesis? Headpiece Base Stalk F0 – part

108. The parasitic fungus on mustard plant is Albugo Ustilago Puccinia Colletotrichum

109. Maturation promoting factor (MPF) is formed by G1 Cyclin + cdc 2 Kinase G2 Cyclin + cdc 1 Kinase Mitotic Cyclin + cdc 2 Kinase Mitotic cyclin

110. Deletion of which domain of ARS would give the least replication rate in eukaryotes: B1 domain A domain B2 domain B3 domain

111. PGA as the first carbon dioxide fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of Gymnosperm Angiosperm Alga Bryophyte

112. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of bacterium: Penicillium roqueforti Penicillium cambertii Lactobacillus Propionibacterium sharmanii

113. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of: Restriction enzymes Probes Selectable markers Ligases

114. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one Chloroplast has 70S ribosomes. Nucleolus is not bound by any membrane. RER helps in synthesis of fats and proteins. Lysosome contains hydrolytic enzymes.

115. Which of the given character of pea plants is seen only in pure lines? Round seeds Yellow pods Full Pods Violet flowers

116. A pair of plants which can prevent both autogamy as well as geitonogamy is: Cucurbits and coconut Coconut and papaya Cucurbits and date palm Date palm and papaya

117. Read the following statements.

Statement A: In primary structure of a protein, the left end is represented by the first amino acid and the right end by the last amino acid.
Statement B: In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is called the non-reducing end.

Choose the correct option:

Both the statements are correct Both the statements are incorrect Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct

118. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria.

119. Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium? Braun lipoprotein O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA) Electron transport system components

120. A typical angiosperm anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them? 200 400 300 600

121. Match the following microbes with the Microbes Product: A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

122. Which of the following is not true for an eukaryotic cell? Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan. 80S type of ribosomes are present in the cytoplasm. Mitochondria contain circular DNA. Membrane bound organelles are present

123. What is the genotypic ratio in test cross for a dihybrid cross if two genes are completely linked? 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 1 : 1 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 3 : 1

124. An organic non-protein substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is: Coenzyme Apoenzyme Holoenzyme Isoenzyme

125. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to: Mesophytes Halophytes Psammophytes Hydrophytes

126. In the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were present. The proportion of different bases were: Adenine = 29%; Guanine = 17%; Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17%. Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can be concluded that: It is a single stranded linear RNA. It is single stranded linear DNA. It is a double stranded linear DNA. It is a double stranded linear DNA.

127. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used: As selectable markers To select healthy vectors. As sequences from where replication starts. To keep the culture free of infection.

128. Which one of the following organisms is not a eukaryote? Paramecium caudatum Escherichia coli Euglena viridis Amoeba proteus

129. The end products of fermentation is (1) only (1) and (2) only (2) and (3) only (3) and (4) only

130. The osmotic expansion of a cells kept in water is chiefly regulated by: Mitochondria Vacuoles Plastids Ribosomes

131. Feedstock for biodiesel can primarily be obtained from Nymphaea Abelmoschus Triticum Jatropha

132. Pteridophytes and Bryophytes differ in having: Spermatozoids Conducting system Separate gametophytes Archegonia

133. There are three major types of RNAs present in bacteria and each of them has specific functions. (i) and (ii) only (i) (ii) and (iii) only (ii)

134. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? (i) and (ii) Both (i) and (iii) Only (ii) Both (iii) and (iv)

135. The phenomenon of change in colour of algae, according to depth in sea is called as: Pasteur’s effect Fogg’s effect Fogg’s effect Gaudikov’s effect

136. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called: Lenticels Complimentary cells Subsidiary cells Bulliform cells

137. Global agreement to reduce the release of ODS is: Vienna Convention Rio de Janeiro Conference Kyoto Protocol Montreal Protocol

138. Which of the following component of phloem is made up of sclerenchymatous cells? Companion cells Bast fiber Sieve tubes Xylem fiber

139. Succession stages that occur in an aquatic habitat are called: Xerosere Halosere Hydrosere Lithosere

140. The essential element required for water splitting in photosynthesis leading to oxygen evolution is: Mo Mn Mg K

141. The propagation of large number of plants by tissue culture technique is called: SCP Micropropagation Biofortification Selective breeding

142. Select the wrong statement. Maximum species diversity is associated with tropical rain forest. Only biotic factors affect the magnitude of primary productivity. Energy flow in an ecosystem is always unidirectional. GFC is major conduit of energy flow in aquatic Ecosystem

143. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because: Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem. A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle Cambium is absent. There are no vessels with perforations.

144. With regard to the biological N2-Fixation by Rhizobium in association with soyabean, which one of the following statements does not hold true? Nitrogenase may require O2 for its functioning. Nitrogenase is Mo–Fe protein. Leg-haemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment. Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules of ammonia.

145. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of: Multipotency Unipotency Pluripotency Totipotency

146. Select the incorrect statement with respect to gymnosperms. Gymnosperms are heterosporous. The giant red wood tree sequoia belongs to gymnosperms The pattern of arrangement of reproductive structures of gymnosperms is spores → sporangia → strobili → sporophylls. Ginkgo and Pinus belongs to gymnosperms.

147. Read the statements given below and fill the blanks with correct option for ‘X’ and ‘Y’. ‘X’ - Devonian, ‘Y’ - Palaeozoic ‘X’ - Silurian, ‘Y’ - Palaeozoic ‘X’ - Permian, ‘Y’ - Mesozoic ‘X’ - Cretaceous, ‘Y’ - Cenozoic

148. How many of the codons listed in the box codes for valine? 2 3 4 5

149. When a cross is made between tall plant with round seeds (TtRr) and tall plant with wrinkled seeds (Ttrr), the proportions of phenotype (A) tall and wrinkled (B) dwarf and wrinkled in the offspring could be expected to be: (A) - 37.5% (B) - 12.5% (A) - 12.5% (B) - 12.5% (A) - 25% (B) - 50% (A) - 50% (B) - 25%

150. Escherichia coli bacteria is grown in a medium that contained 15N and after sometime the cells were transferred into a medium containing 14N. A CsCl density gradient centrifugation of the DNA is done after two rounds of replication. How many bands will be observed in the second round? One Two Three Four

151. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Zoological Nomenclature and correctly described? Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests E.coli – Full name Entamoeba coli a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.

152. After childbirth a woman is not able to release milk to feed her child. Which hormone could help in milk ejection? Prolactin Pitocin Estrogen Progesterone

153. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of: mRNA rRNA tRNA hnRNA

154. Which one is exclusive characteristic of living beings? Increase in mass from inside. Increase in mass both from outside and inside. Perception of events happening in environment and their memory Isolated metabolic reactions occuring in vitro.

155. Neoplastic transformation may occur as a result of: Non-ionizing radiation like X-rays Ionizing radiation like UV-rays. Non-ionizing gamma rays. Both ionizing and non-ionizing radiations.

156. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia? Metagenesis Gastrovascular cavity Diploblastic Cnidoblast

157. Uricotelic mode of excreting nitrogenous wastes is found in: Reptiles and birds Birds and annelids Amphibians and reptiles Insects and amphibians

158. Whose experiments cracked DNA and discovered triplet nature of genetic code? Nirenberg and Mathaei Beadle and Tatum Hershey and Chase Morgan and Sturtevant

159. Which of the following is a non-medicated IUD? Lippe’s loop Multiload - 375 LNG - 20 Progestasert

160. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart? Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output. Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output Both heart rate and cardiac output increase. Heart rate decreases but cardiac output.

161. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to blood. Blood is a fluid connective tissue. It consists of formed elements and plasma Blood cells and plasma both are responsible for transportation of O2 and CO2. Cells of blood form matrix and structural proteins like other connective tissues.

162. The most abundant protein in animals is _______ and most abundant protein on Earth is _______respectively. Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly. RuBisCo and Elastin Collagen & Elastin RuBisCo & Collagen Collagen and RuBisCO

163. C-peptide of human insulin is a part of mature insulin molecule. responsible for its biological activity responsible for formation of disulphide bridges. removed during maturation of proinsulin to insulin.

164. Select the Taxon mentioned which represent both marine and fresh water species. Echinoderms Ctenophora Cephalochordata Cnidaria

165. The figure shows the schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A, B, C and D. Choose the correct option labelled with its functions. A – pulmonary vein – takes impure blood from body parts, pO2 = 60 mm Hg B – pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs, pO2 = 90 mm Hg C – vena cava – takes blood from body parts to right auricle, pCO2 = 45 mm Hg D – dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to body parts, pO2 = 95 mm Hg

166. Select the correct match with respect to infection and its causative agent: Gonorrhoea – Trichomonas Genital warts – Treponema Syphilis – Neisseria Tetanus – Clostridium

167. What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans? Glucagon is secreted by b-cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis. Secretion of thymosin is stimulated with ageing In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane. FSH stimulates the secretion of oestrogen and progesterone.

168. Select the correct statement. Morphine is extracted from the leaves of Cannabis sativa Chikungunya and amoebic dysentery are both transmitted through mosquito as a vector. Anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy T-lymphocytes act like an HIV factory

169. A plover bird and crocodiles have a particular interaction, that is: Commensalism Protocooperation Mutualism Competition

170. In counter current mechanism, the concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium is mainly maintained by HCO₃⁻ and K⁺ NaCl and H₂O NaCl and urea K⁺ and H⁺

171. Which of the following is not observed during contraction of a muscle fibre? A bands retain the length Shortening of sarcomere. I band gets reduced H zone retains the length.

172. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A: The most primitive of all craniates are jawless vertebrates.

Statement B: Cyclostomes have paired appendages and sucking circular mouth.

Both statements are correct. Both statements are incorrect Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct.

173. In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the centre of the visual field where: High density of cones occur, but has no rods. The optic nerve leaves the eye Only rods are present More rods than cones are found

174. All are functions of Sertoli cells except: Formation of blood testis barrier. Secretion of smegma. Secretes Anti Mullerian Factor Secretes Androgen Binding Protein

175. Hypothalmic hormones are transported to neurohypophysis through: Portal vein Portal artery Axons Lymph vessel

176. Lacteals collect lymph from Lower limbs Upper limbs Gut Head

177. Choose the correct statement regarding mode of transmission of HIV? Drug addicts have least chance to infected with AIDS. Individuals who need repeated blood transfusion, HIV can be transmitted on sharing needles. Contaminated through saliva. Biting through contaminated mosquito.

178. The genetic disease that transfers from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progenies. The disease is: Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive Sex-linked dominant Sex-linked recessive

179. Incorrect question formation: Which of the following is correct in regards to the diluted urine in the excretory system of human beings? Nearly 99% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules Ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes. Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water. Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3 –

180. Which of the following is correct regarding thrombin? It is a protein of primary structure. Converts soluble fibrinogen of plasma into insoluble fibrin. Converts insoluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin. Converts fibrin into fibrinogen.

181. If one kidney is removed what will be the immediate effect? The person will die due to lack of urine formation. Uraemia and death Death due to poisoning. The person may survive

182. Cardiac notch is present in: Superior lobe of right lung Inferior lobe of left lung Superior lobe of left lung Inferior lobe of right lung

183. The cartilage generally present on long bone terminals is: Hyaline cartilage Fibrous cartilage Hyaline and calcified cartilage Elastic cartilage

184. Poikilothermic animals having monocondylic skull and amnion belong to the class: Amphibia Reptilia Aves Mammalia

185. Name the cytokines which released in response to virus infection. Monokines Lymphokines Interleukins Interferons

186. The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is: Maltase Nucleases Nucleosidase Lipase

187. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? (i) and (ii) Both (i) and (iii) Only (ii) Both (iii) and (iv)

188. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by: p 2 2pq pq q 2

189. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called: Active transport Facilitated transport Simple diffusion Co-transport mechanism

190. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is: FRC VC ERV IRV

191. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the: Contraction of both atria Initiation of the ventricular contraction Beginning of the systole End of the systole

192. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life: (ii) is correct but (i) is false Both (i) and (ii) are correct Both (i) and (ii) are false (i) is correct but (ii) is false

193. MALT is considered as the secondary lymphoid organ which is located within the lining of major tracts in the body. Here, MALT stands for: Metaderm Associated Lymphoid Tissues Medulla Associated Lymphoid Tissues Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissues Mucosal Associated Leukemia Tissues

194. The process of becoming human or the development of human race is known as: Anthropogenesis Anthropology Anthropogeny Paleontology

195. Choose the correct option for ‘P’, ‘Q’, ‘R’ and ‘S’ ‘P’-A, AB; ‘Q’-B, AB; ‘R’-AB, A, B, O; ‘S’-O ‘P’-A; ‘Q’-O, A, B, AB; ‘R’-AB, A, B, O; ‘S’-A, B ‘P’-O; ‘Q’-B, AB; ‘R’-A; ‘S’-AB, A, B, O ‘P’-O; ‘Q’-O, A, B, AB; ‘R’-B; ‘S’-AB

196. Which one of the following synovial joint is incorrectly matched with its position? Hinge Joint → Knee Pivot Joint → Between Atlas and Axis Gliding Joint → Between Carpal bones Ellipsoid Joint → Between pectoral girdle and head of humerus

197. Read the statements given below: 3 2 4 1

198. In Human Genome Project, sequence of which chromosome was completed in May, 2006: Chromosome X Chromosome Y Chromosome 1 Chromosome II

199. Complete the following chart by choosing correct option for ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’. A-Cellular, B-Bilateral, C- Coelomates A-Cellular, B- Asymmetry , C-Eucoelomates A-Cellular, B- Asymmetry, C-Enterocoelomate A-Schizo cellular, B- Biradial, C-Coelomates

200. Match the following symbols of the pedigree analysis, with their correct representation: (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)