NEET Mock Test: Battleground 1

1.The magnetic potential energy, when a magnetic bar of magnetic moment vector m is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field vector B is

-2 mB/2 Zero -mb mb

2.A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 10 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed is: 20 rpm 40 rpm 5 rpm 10 rpm

3. A metal cube of side 5 cm is charged with 6 μC. The surface charge density on the cube is 0.125 × 10⁻³ C m⁻² 0.25 × 10⁻³ C m⁻² 4 × 10⁻³ C m⁻² 0.4 × 10⁻³ C m⁻²

4.The incorrect relation for a diamagnetic material (all the symbols carry their usual meaning and ϵ is a small positive number) is μ < μ₀ 0 ≤ μᵣ < 1 −1 ≤ χ < 0 1 < μᵣ < 1 + ε

5. An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform cross-sectional tube XY (as shown in the figure) from end X to end Y. If K₁ and K₂ are the kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid at X and Y respectively, then the correct option is: K₁ = K₂ 2K₁ = K₂ K₁ > K₂ K₁ < K₂

6. The escape velocity for earth is v. A planet having 9 times mass that of earth and radius, 16 times that of earth, has the escape velocity of: V/3 2V/3 3V/4 9V/4

7. An electron and an alpha particle are accelerated by the same potential difference. Let λₑ and λₐ denote the de-Broglie wavelengths of the electron and the alpha particle, respectively, then: λₑ > λₐ λₑ = 4λₐ λₑ = λₐ λₑ < λₐ

8. An object moving along horizontal x-direction with kinetic energy 10 J is displaced through x = (3î) m by the force F⃗ = (–2î + 3ĵ) N. The kinetic energy of the object at the end of the displacement x is: 10J 16J 4J 6J

9. An object falls from a height of 10 m above the ground. After striking the ground it loses 50% of its kinetic energy. The height upto which the object can rebounce from the ground is: 7.5m 10m 2.5m 5m

10.In the circuit shown below, the inductance L is connected to an ac source. The current flowing in the circuit is I = I₀ sinωt. The voltage drop (V_L) across L is: ωL I₀ sinωt I₀⁄(ωL) sinωt I₀⁄(ωL) cosωt ωL I₀ cosωt

11. A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery, the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor in nJ is 15 7.5 0.3 150

12.A uniform wire of diameter d carries a current of 100 mA when the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is v. For a wire of diameter d/2 of the same material to carry a current of 200 mA, the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is 4v 8v v 2v

13. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V = (200 ± 4) volt and the current is measured as I = (20 ± 0.2) A. The value of the resistance is: (10±4.2)Ω (10±0.3)Ω (10±0.1)Ω (10±0.8)Ω

14. A step up transformer is connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V to operate at 11000 V, 88 watt. The current in the secondary circuit, ignoring the power loss in the transformer, is 8 mA 4 mA 0.4 A 4 A

15. A particle is moving along the x-axis with its position (x) varying with time (t) as: x = αt⁴ + βt² + γt + δ The ratio of its initial velocity to its initial acceleration is: 2α:δ 𝛾 : 2 𝛿 4 𝛼 : 𝛽 𝛾 : 2 𝛽

16.The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass 5 kg about XY is 5 m as shown 5x / √7 m in figure. The radius of the sphere is. 5 √2 √3 √5

17.The I-V characteristics shown below are exhibited by a Light emitting diode Zener diode Photodiode Solar cell

18. The magnetic moment and moment of inertia of a magnetic needle as shown are, respectively, 1.0 × 10⁻² A·m² and (10⁻⁶ / π²) kg·m². If it completes 10 oscillations in 10 s, the magnitude of the magnetic field is: 0.4T 4T 0.4mT 4mT

19. The capacitance of a capacitor with charge q and a potential difference V depends on both q and V the geometry of the capacitor q only V only

20. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Image formation needs regular reflection and/or refraction.
Statement II : The variety in colour of objects we see around us is due to the constituent colours of the light incident on them.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

21. A uniform metal wire of length l has 10 Ω resistance. Now this wire is stretched to a length 2l and then bent to form a perfect circle. The equivalent resistance across any arbitrary diameter of that circle is 10 Ω 5Ω 40Ω 20Ω

22. The spectral series which corresponds to the electronic transition from the levels n₂ = 5, 6,... to the level n₁ = 4 is Pfund series Brackett series Lyman series Balmer series

23. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Houses made of concrete roofs overlaid with foam keep the room hotter during summer.
Reason R: The layer of foam insulation prohibits heat transfer, as it contains air pockets.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

A is true but R is false. A is false but R is true. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

24. A particle executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude A has the same potential and kinetic energies at the displacement 2√A A/2 A/(√2) A√2

25. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment are 1.5 mm apart and the screen is placed at a distance of 1 m from the slits. If the wavelength of light used is 600 × 10⁻⁹ m then the fringe separation is 4 × 10⁻⁵ m 9 × 10⁻⁸ m 4 × 10⁻⁷ m 4 × 10⁻⁴ m

26. Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its high thermal expansion coefficient high specific heat capacity low density low boiling point

27. The pitch of an error free screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. While measuring the diameter of a thick wire, the pitch scale reads 1 mm and 63rd division on the circular scale coincides with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is: 1.63 cm 0.163 cm 0.163 m 1.63 m

28. Let us consider two solenoids A and B, made from the same magnetic material of relative permeability μr and equal area of cross-section. The length of A is twice that of B, and the number of turns per unit length in A is half that of B. What is the ratio of self-inductances of the two solenoids, LA : LB? 1 : 2 2 : 1 8 : 1 1 : 8

29. When the output of an OR gate is applied as input to a NOT gate, then the combination acts as a NAND gate NOR gate AND gate OR gate

30. Interference pattern can be observed due to superposition of the following waves: A) y = a sin(ωt)
B) y = a sin(2ωt)
C) y = a sin(ωt – ϕ)
D) y = a sin(3ωt)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

B and C B and D A and C A and B

31.If ϕ is the work function of a photosensitive material in eV and light of wavelength with a numerical value λ=hc/e meters is incident on it with energy above its threshold value at an instant, then the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron ejected by it at that instant (Take h Planck’s constant, c velocity of light in free space) is (in SI units) e+2ϕ 2e-ϕ e-ϕ e+ϕ

32. The electromagnetic radiation which has the smallest wavelength are X-rays Gamma rays Ultraviolet rays Microwaves

33. The equilibrium state of a thermodynamic system is described by A. Pressure
B. Total heat C. Temperature
D. Volume
E. Work done
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

A, B and E only B, C and D only A, B and C only A, C and D only

34. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure with their wavelengths of transitions. Then: λ₃ > λ₂, λ₁ = 2λ₂ λ₃ > λ₂, λ₁ = 4λ₂ λ₁ > λ₂, λ₂ = 2λ₃ λ₂ > λ₁, λ₂ = 2λ₃

35. A box of mass 5 kg is pulled by a cord, up along a frictionless plane inclined at 30° with the horizontal. The tension in the cord is 30 N. The acceleration of the box is (Take g = 10 m s⁻²). 2 m s⁻² Zero 0.1 m s⁻² 1 m s⁻²

36. If the ratio of relative permeability and relative permittivity of a uniform medium is 1 : 4. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric field intensity (E) to the magnetic field intensity (H) of an EM wave propagating in that medium is 30π :1 1: 30π 60π :1 120π :1

37. The value of electric potential at a distance of 9 cm from the point charge 4 × 10⁻⁷ C is: 4 × 10² V 44.4 V 4.4 × 10⁵ V 4 × 10⁴ V

38. The displacement of a travelling wave is y = C sin(2π(at – x) / λ), where t is time, x is distance, and λ is the wavelength — all in S.I. units. Then the frequency of the wave is: (2πλ) / a (2πa) / λ λ/a a / λ

39. An object of mass 100 kg falls from point A to B as shown in figure. The change in its weight, corrected to the nearest integer is (RE is the radius of the earth) 49 N 89 N 5 N 10 N

40. The potential energy of a particle moving along x-direction varies as V = (A x²) / √(x + B) The dimensions of A² / B are: [ M³⁄² L¹⁄² T⁻³ ] [ M¹⁄² L T⁻³] [ M² L¹⁄² T⁻⁴] [ M L² T⁻⁴ ]

41. The two-dimensional motion of a particle, described by r vector = (î + 2ĵ) A cos(ωt) is a/an: B, C and D only A, B and C only A, C and D only C and D only

42. A beam of unpolarized light of intensity I0 is passed through a polaroid A, then through another polaroid B, oriented at 60º and finally through another polaroid C, oriented at 45º relative to B as shown. The intensity of emergent light is: I₀ / 16 I₀ / 4 I₀ / 2 I₀ / 32

43. Select the correct statements among the following : A, B and C only A, B and D only A and B only C and D only

44. Let ω₁, ω₂ and ω₃ be the angular speed of the second hand, minute hand, and hour hand of a smoothly running analog clock, respectively. If x₁, x₂ and x₃ are their respective angular distances in 1 minute, then the factor which remains constant (k) is: ω₁ / x₁ = ω₂ / x₂ = ω₃ / x₃ = k ω₁x₁ = ω₂x₂ = ω₃x₃ = k ω₁²x₁ = ω₂²x₂ = ω₃²x₃ = k ω₁²x₁² = ω₂²x₂² = ω₃²x₃² = k

45. The magnetic moment of an iron bar is M. It is now bent in such a way that it forms an arc section of a circle subtending an angle of 60° at the centre. The magnetic moment of this arc section is 3M / π 4M / π M / π 2M / π

46. The given circuit shows a uniform straight wire AB of 40 cm length fixed at both ends. In order to get zero reading in the galvanometer G, the free end of J is to be placed from B at: 32 cm 8 cm 16 cm 24 cm

47. According to the law of equipartition of energy, the number of vibrational modes of a polyatomic gas of constant γ = Cₚ / Cᵥ (where Cₚ and Cᵥ are the specific heat capacities of the gas at constant pressure and constant volume, respectively) is: (4 + 3γ) / (γ − 1) (3 + 4γ) / (γ − 1) (4 − 3γ) / (γ − 1) (3 − 4γ) / (γ − 1)

48. The output Y for the inputs A and B of the given logic circuit is : A . B 2AB A + B A + 2B

49. The amplitude of the charge oscillating in a circuit decreases exponentially as: Q = Q₀·e⁻ᴿᵗ⁄²ᴸ, where Q₀ is the charge at t = 0 s. The time at which the charge amplitude decreases to 0.50·Q₀ is nearly: (Given: R = 1.5 Ω, L = 12 mH, ln(2) = 0.693) 19.01 ms 11.09 ms 19.01 s 11.09 s

50. The steady state current in the circuit shown below is : 0.67 A 1.5 A 2 A 1 A

51. The correct decreasing order of atomic radii (pm) of Li, Be, B and C is Be > Li > B > C Li > Be > B > C C > B > Be > Li Li > C > Be > B

52. Following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B :

The order of the reaction with respect to A and B, respectively, are

1, 0 0, 1 1, 2 2, 1

53. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Propene on treatment with diborane gives an addition product with the formula.

Statement II: Oxidation of the addition product with hydrogen peroxide in the presence of NaOH gives propan-2-ol.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

54. Baeyer’s reagent is : Acidic potassium permanganate solution Acidic potassium dichromate solution Cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium permanganate Hot, concentrated solution of potassium permanganate

55. Which of the following molecules has "NON ZERO" dipole moment value? CCl₄ Hl CO₂ BF₃

56. Lucas reagent produces cloudiness immediately with :- 1-propanol 2-butanol 2-methyl-2-propanol 2-methyl-1-propanol

57. Which indicator is used in the titration of sodium hydroxide against oxalic acid and what is the colour change at the end point? Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow Alkaline KMnO4, colourless to pink Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour

58. Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from the options given below : A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

59. From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion. Rusting of iron object Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of water Tarnishing of silver Development of green coating on copper and bronze ornaments

60. Which of the following pairs of ions will have same spin only magnetic moment values within the pair? and Choose the correct answer from the options given below : C and D only A and D only A and B only B and C only

61. At a given temperature and pressure, the equilibrium constant values for the equilibria are given below: K₁² = 2K₂ K₂ = K₁ / 2 K₁ = 1 / √K₂ K₂ = 1 / √K₁

62. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their solubilities in chloroform: NaCl, CH₃OH, cyclohexane, CH₃CN NaCl < CH₃CN < CH₃OH < Cyclohexane CH₃OH < CH₃CN < NaCl < Cyclohexane NaCl < CH₃OH < CH₃CN < Cyclohexane Cyclohexane < CH₃CN < CH₃OH < NaCl

63. Identify the incorrect statement about PCl₅: PCl₅ possesses two different Cl–P–Cl bond angles All five P – Cl bonds are identical in length PCl₅ exhibits sp³d hybridisation PCl₅ consists of five P–Cl (sigma) bonds

64. Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released when 5 litres of an ideal gas at 10 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until volume is 15 litres : Both the heat and work done will be greater than zero Heat absorbed will be less than zero and work done will be positive Work done will be zero and heat will also be zero Work done will be greater than zero and heat will remain zero

65. The correct IUPAC name of the compound 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene 3-ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

66. Which of the following set of ions act as oxidising agents? Ce⁴⁺ and Tb⁴⁺ La³⁺ and Lu³⁺ Eu²⁺ and Yb²⁺ Eu²⁺ and Tb⁴⁺

67. Which of the following reagents cannot distinguish between glucose and fructose ? Tollens' reagent Fehling's solution Benedict' solution All of these

68. The UV-visible absorption bands in the spectra of lanthanoid ions are ‘X’, probably because of the excitation of electrons involving ‘Y’. The ‘X’ and ‘Y’, respectively, are : Broad and f orbitals Narrow and f orbitals Broad and d and f orbitals Narrow and d and f orbitals

69. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an: hexadentate ligand ambidentate ligand monodentate ligand bidentate ligand

70. The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 mL of M/20 aqueous solution is :(Molar mass of glucose: 180 g mol⁻¹) 2.25 g 4.5 g 0.44 g 1.125 g

71. Identify the incorrect statement from the following The acidic strength of HX (X = F, Cl, Br and I) follows the order : HF > HCl > HBr > HI. Fluorine exhibits –1 oxidation state whereas other halogens exhibit +1, +3, +5 and +7 oxidation states also. The enthalpy of dissociation of F₂ is smaller than that of Cl₂. Fluorine is stronger oxidising agent than chlorine.

72. For the reaction in equilibrium. Reaction is favoured in forward direction by: use of catalyst decreasing concentration of N2 low pressure, high temperature and high concentration of ammonia high pressure, low temperature and higher concentration of H2

73. London forces are present in - Polar - polar molecule Nonpolar - non polar molecule Polar - nonpolar molecule Ionic compound

74. Match List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

75. Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand? C₂O₄²⁻ SCN⁻ NO₂⁻ CN⁻

76. The quantum numbers of four electrons are given below and The correct decreasing order of energy of these electrons is V > II > III > I I > III > II > IV III > I > II > IV I > II > III > IV

77. The major product C in the below mentioned reaction is: Propan-1-ol Propan-2-ol Propane Propyne

78. The compound that does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a positive carbylamine test is : Aniline Pyridine N-methylaniline Triethylamine

79. For an endothermic reaction and Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B and D C and D A and B A and C

80. 1.0 g of H₂ has same number of molecules as in: 14 g of N₂ 18 g of H₂O 16 g of CO 28 g of N₂

81. Which of the following property increases regularly from carbon to fluorine ? I.P. E.A. Shielding constant All of these

82. A steam volatile organic compound which is immiscible with water has a boiling point of 250°C. During steam distillation, a mixture of this organic compound and water will boil : above 100°C but below 250°C above 250°C at 250°C close to but below 100°C

83. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Glycogen is similar to amylose in its structure.

Statement II: Glycogen is found in yeast and fungi also.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

84. The oxidation states not shown by Mn in given reaction and Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below . D and E only B and D only A and B only B and E only

85. Given below are two statements: Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false

86. Identify D in the following sequence of reactions: n-propyl alcohol isopropyl alcohol propanal propionic acid

87. Identify the incorrect statement. PEt₃ and AsPh₃ as ligands can form dπ–dπ bond with transition metals. The N – N single bond is as strong as the P – P single bond Nitrogen has unique ability to form pπ-pπ multiple bonds with nitrogen, carbon and oxygen Nitrogen cannot form dπ-pπ bond as other heavier elements of its group

88. Match List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

89. Match List-I with List-II and Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

90. The standard cell potential of the following cell Zn | Zn²⁺(aq) || Fe²⁺(aq) | Fe is 0.32 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for the reaction. –61.75 kJ mol⁻¹ +5.006 kJ mol⁻¹ –5.006 kJ mol⁻¹ +61.75 kJ mol⁻¹

91. Match List-I will List-II and Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

92. The ratio of solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M KCl solution to the solubility of AgCl in water is: (Given: Solubility product of AgCl = 10⁻¹⁰) 10⁻⁴ 10⁻⁶ 10⁻⁹ 10⁻⁵

93. On complete combustion, 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 0.2 g of CO₂ and 0.1 g of H₂O. The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in the compound, respectively, is: 4.07% and 15.02% 18.18% and 3.70% 15.02% and 4.07% 3.70% and 18.18%

94. The following reaction method is not suitable for the preparation of the corresponding haloarene products, due to high reactivity of halogen, when X is : F I CI Br

95. The alkane that can be oxidized to the corresponding alcohol by KMnO₄ is:: R₁ = H; R₂ = H; R₃ = H R₁ = CH₃; R₂ = CH₃; R₃ = CH₃ R₁ = CH₃; R₂ = H; R₃ = H R₁ = CH₃; R₂ = CH₃; R₃ = H

96. For the following reaction at 300 K the enthalpy change is +15 kJ, then the internal energy change is : 19988.4 J 200 J 1999 J 1.9988 kJ

97. Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and 700 K are 0.04 s⁻¹ and 0.14 s⁻¹, respectively. Then, the activation energy of the reaction is: (Given: log 3.5 = 0.5441, R = 8.31 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹) 182310 J 18500 J 18219 J 18030 J

98. Mass of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) required to be dissolved to prepare one litre of its solution which is isotonic with 15 g L⁻¹ solution of urea (NH₂CONH₂) is: (Given: Molar mass in g mol⁻¹ — C: 12, H: 1, O: 16, N: 14) 55 g 15 g 30 g 45 g

99. [Mn₂(CO)₁₀] and [Co₂(CO)₈] structures have Only A, B, C Only B, C, D Only A, C, D Only A, B, D

100. Methyl group attached to a positively charged carbon atom stabilizes the carbocation due to –I inductive effect electromeric effect hyperconjugation mesomeric effect

101. The regions with high level of species richness, high degree of endemism and a loss of 70% of the species and habitat are identified as: Natural Reserves Sacred Groves Biodiversity Hotspots Biogeographical Regions

102. Which of the following simple tissues are commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts and pulp of pear? Sclereids Fibres Parenchyma (4) Collenchyma

103. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA sequence, responsible for initiating replication. It is called as: Recognition sequence Cloning site Restriction site ori site

104. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When many alleles of a single gene govern a character, it is called polygenic inheritance.

Statement II: In polygenic inheritance, the effect of each allele is additive.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false

105. Which of the following are required for the light reaction of Photosynthesis? A, C, D and E only C, D and E only A and B only A, C and E only

106. Match List-I with List-II: A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

107. Match List-I with List-II: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

108. Which part of the ovule stores reserve food materials? Nucellus Integument Placenta Funicle

109. Which one of the following is not found in Gymnosperms? Sieve cells Albuminous cells Tracheids Vessels

110. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation? Wild-life sanctuary Botanical garden Biosphere reserve National park

111. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Indian Government has set up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research.

Statement II: Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false

112. Pollen grains remain preserved as fossils due to the presence of : Epidermal layer Tapetum Exine layer Intine layer

113. Identify the incorrect pair : Sphenopsida – Adiantum Pteropsida – Dryopteris Psilopsida – Psilotum Lycopsida – Selaginella

114. Which of the following is the correct match? Gymnosperms : Cedrus, Pinus, Sequoia Angiosperms : Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Sequoia Bryophytes : Polytrichum, Polysiphonia, Sphagnum Pteridophytes : Equisetum, Ginkgo, Adiantum

115. Given below are two statements regarding RNA polymerase in prokaryotes.

Statement I: In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing the process of elongation during transcription.

Statement II:RNA polymerase associate transiently with ‘Rho’ factor to initiate transcription

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false

116. Which of the following is a nucleotide? Uridine Adenylic acid Guanine Guanosine

117. Match List-I with List-II : A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

118. Match List-I with List-II : A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

119. Which of the following helps in maintenance of the pressure gradient in sieve tubes? Albuminous cells Sieve cells Phloem parenchyma Companion cells

120. Mesosome in a cell is a : Membrane bound vesicular structure Chain of many ribosomes attached to a single mRNA Special structure formed by extension of plasma membrane Medium sized chromosome

121. Match List-I with List-II : A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

122. 1 complex Match List-I with List-II : A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

123. Match List-I with List-II: A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

124. Cryopreservation technique is used for : Protection of environment Protection of Biodiversity hotspots Preservation of gametes in viable and fertile condition for a long period In-situ conservation

125. Which of the following are correct about cellular respiration? A, C, D, E only A, B, E only A, B, C, E only B, C, D, E only

126. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In eukaryotes there are three RNA polymerases in the nucleus in addition to the RNA polymerase found in the organelles.

Statement II: All the three RNA polymerases in eukaryotic nucleus have different roles.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

127. Match List-I with List-II: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

128. Given below are two statements: Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false

129. Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of Diakinesis Zygotene Diplotene Pachytene

130. Match List-I with List-II: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

131. Ligases is a class of enzymes responsible for catalysing the linking together of two compounds. Which of the following bonds is not catalysed by it? C – C P – O C – O C – N

132. F. Skoog observed that callus proliferated from the internodal segments of tobacco stem when auxin was supplied with one of the following except : Extract of Vascular tissues Coconut milk Abscisic acid Yeast Extract

133. Given below are some statements about plant growth regulators. A, C, D B, E A, B, C B, D, E

134. Identify the incorrect statement related to gel electrophoresis. Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen under UV radiation Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece Fragment of DNA moves toward anode Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation of DNA fragments

135. Which of the following examples show monocarpellary, unilocular ovary with many ovules? B and E only C, D and E only A, B and D only A and C only

136. Given below are two statements : Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false

137. The part marked as ‘x’ in the given figure is Endosperm Thalamus Endocarp Mesocarp

138. Given below are two statements: Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false

139. Which of the following are not fatty acids? C, D and E only A and B only A, D and E only B and C only

140. Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem given below: (10000 /10) J (10000 /10)4 J 10,000 J 10,00,000 J

141. Which one of the following products diffuses out of the chloroplast during photosynthesis? ADP NADPH O2 ATP

142. Recombinant DNA molecule can be created normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA respectively with: Hind II, Hind II Hind II, Alu I Hind II, EcoR I Hind II, BamHI

143. Which one of the following is not a limitation of ecological pyramids? Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids It assumes a simple food chain, that almost never exists in nature It accommodates a food web It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels

144. How does the activated Bt toxin lead to the death of insect pests? Creating pores in the midgut Damaging the respiratory system Degenerating the nervous system Altering the pH of body fluids

145. Match List-I with List-II: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-IV, B-II, С-III, D-I

146. What is the role of RNA polymerase-II in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ? Transcribe rRNA (28S, 18S and 5.8S) Transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA Transcribes precursor of mRNA Transcribes only snRNA

147. When will the population density increase, under special conditions? When the number of : Deaths exceeds number of births and also number of emigrants equals number of immigrants. Births plus number of immigrants equals number of deaths plus number of emigrants. Births plus number of emigrants is more than the number of deaths plus number of immigrants. Births plus number of immigrants is more than the sum of number of deaths and number of emigrants.

148. When a tall pea plant with round seeds was selfed, it produced the progeny of : Tall plants with round seeds and Tall plants with wrinkled seeds. TtRr TtRR TTRR TTRr

149. Match List-I with List-II: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

150. Observe the given figure. Identify the different stages labelled with alphabets by selecting the correct option. A-Carboxylation, B-Regeneration, C-Reduction A-Reduction, B-Decarboxylation, C-Regeneration A-Carboxylation, B-Reduction, C-Regeneration A-Reduction, B-Carboxylation, C-Regeneration

151. Match List-I with List-II: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

152. Match List-I with List-II: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

153. Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton - A. The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect., B. Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins., C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals., D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of the insect., E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria. E - C - B - A - D B - C - A - E - D A - E - B - D - C B - E - C - A - D

154. Match List-I with List-II: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

155. Which evolutionary phenomenon is depicted by the sketch given in figure? Artificial selection Genetic drift Convergent evolution Adaptive radiation

156.A person with blood group ARh– can receive the blood transfusion from which of the following types? D and E only D only A and B only C and D only

157. Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds, are known as : Transferases Oxidoreductases Dehydrogenases Lyases

158. Match List-I with List-II. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

159. Match List-I with List-II. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

160. Match List-I with List-II. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

161. Which of the following statements is correct about the type of junction and their role in our body? Adhering junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other. Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. Tight junctions help to perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. Gap junctions help to create gap between the cells and tissues.

162. Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose restriction sites are present for the tetracycline resistance (tetR) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector. Bam HI and Sal I Sal I and Pst I Pst I and Pvu I Pvu I and Bam HI

163. Match List-I with List-II. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III A-I, B-III C-II, D-IV А-II, В-ІІІ, C-I, D-IV A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

164. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: During menstrual cycle, the ovulation takes place approximately on 14th day. Reason R: Rapid secretion of LH in the middle of menstrual cycle induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby the release of ovum. A is correct but R is not correct. A is not correct but R is correct. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

165. Match List-I with List-II with respect to convergent evolution: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I А-IV, В-ІІІ, C-II, D-I A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

166. Match List-I with List-II. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I А-І, В-III, C-IV, D-II Α-I, В-I, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

167. Match List-I with List-II. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III А-III, В-1, C-II, D-IV A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

168. Match List-I with List-II relating to microbes and their products: А-ІІ, В-III, C-IV, D-I A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

169. Match List-I with List-II. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

170. Match List-I with List-II relating to examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier: A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I A-IV, В-III, С-I, D-II A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV А-II, В-IV, C-I, D-III

171. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Antibiotics are chemicals produced by microbes that kill other microbes. Statement II: Antibodies are chemicals formed in body that eliminate microbes. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

172. Arrange the following parts in human Mammary gland, traversing the route of milk ejection. A. Mammary duct B. Lactiferous duct C. Mammary alveolus D. Ampulla E. Mammary tubule D - C - E - A - B C - E - B - A - D C - E - A - D - B A - C - E - D - B

173. Which of the following are correct about EcoRI? A. Cut the DNA with blunt end, B. Cut the DNA with sticky end, C. Recognise a specific palindromic sequence, D. Cut the DNA between the base G and A when encounters the DNA sequence ‘GAATTC’, E. Exonuclease B, C, E only A, D, E only A, C, D only B, C, D only

174. Which of the following is/are present in female cockroach? B and D only B and E only A only A and C only

175. Math List-I with List-II: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

176. Open Circulatory system is present in: Palaemon, Nereis, Balanoglossus Hirudinaria, Bombyx, Salpa Anopheles, Limax, Limulus Pheretima, Musca, Pila

177. In which of the following connective tissues, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or elastin? B, C, D and E only A, B, C and E only B, C and D only A, C and D only

178. Which of the following pairs is an incorrect match? Annelids and arthropods-Bilateral symmetry Sponges-Acoelomates Coelenterates and Ctenophores-Radial symmetry Platyhelminthes-Diploblastic organisation

179. Match List-I with List-II: A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

180. Match List-I with List-II: A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

181. Match List-I with List -II A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

182. Diuresis is prevented by: Renin from JG cell via switching off the osmoreceptors ANF from atria of the heart Aldosterone from adrenal medulla Vasopressin from Neurohypophysis

183. Following is the list of STDs. Select the diseases which are not completely curable. A and D only B and D only A and C only D and E only

184. What is the correct order (old to recent) of periods in Paleozoic era? Silurian, Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian Permian, Devonian, Silurian, Carboniferous Silurian, Carboniferous, Permian, Devonian

185. ‘Lub’ sound of Heart is caused by the . closure of the semilunar valves opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves opening of the semilunar valves closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves

186. Match List-I with List-II relating to human female external genitalia. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

187. Aneuploidy is a chromosomal disorder where chromosome number is not the exact copy of its haploid set of chromosomes, due to : C and D only D and E only A and B only B and C only

188. Given below are two statements : Statement I : RNA interference takes place in all Eukaryotic organisms as method of cellular defense. Statement II : RNAi involves the silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary single-stranded RNA molecule that binds and prevents translation of mRNA Statement I is true but Statement II is false. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

189. Identify the wrong statements : A. Erythropoietin is produced by juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney, B. Leydig cells produce Androgens, C. Atrial Natriuretic factor, a peptide hormone is secreted by the seminiferous tubules of the testes, D. Cholecystokinin is produced by gastrointestinal tract, E. Gastrin acts on intestinal wall and helps in the production of pepsinogen D and E only A and B only C and E only A and C only

190. Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR. : A. Annealing, B. Amplification (~1 billion times), C. Denaturation, D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and deoxynucleotides, E. Extension C - A - D - E - B A - B - E - D - C A - C - E - D - B D - B - E - C - A

191. Given below are two statements: Statements I: Concentrated urine is formed due to counter current mechanism in nephron. Statement II: Counter current mechanism helps to maintain osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

192. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Concentrically arranged cisternae of Golgi complex are arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex cis or maturing and concave trans or forming face. Statement II: A number of proteins are modified in the cisternae of Golgi complex before they are released from cis face. Statement I is true but Statement II is false. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false

193. Match List-I with List-II: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

194. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period. The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult. Reason R: Thus all chordates are vertebrates not all vertebrates are chordates. A is true but R is false. A is false but R is true Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

195. The mother has A+ blood group the father has B+ and the child is A+. What can be the possibility of genotypes of all three, respectively? C and D D and A A and B B and E

196. What do ‘a’ and ‘b’ represent in the following population growth curve? ‘a’ represents exponential growth when responses are not limiting the growth; and ‘b’ represents logistic growth when responses are limiting the growth. ‘a’ represents logistic growth when responses are not limiting the growth; ‘b’ represents exponential growth when responses are limiting the growth. ‘a’ represents carrying capacity and ‘b’ shows logistic growth when responses are limiting the growth. ‘a’ represents exponential growth when responses are not limiting the growth and ‘b’ shows carrying capacity.

197. Select the correct statements regarding mechanism of muscle contraction. B, C and E only C, D and E only A and D only B, D and E only

198. Match List I with List II : A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

199. Match List I with List II : A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

200. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: During the transportation of gases, about 20-25 percent of CO2 is carried by Haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin. Reason R: This binding is related to high pCO2 and low pO2 in tissues. A is true but R is false. A is false but R is true. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.