1. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point D is taken to be zero, the potential at point C is:- +1V –1V +2V –2V

2. A current of 1A flows through a 2Ω resistor when connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a current of 0.25A when connected across a 11Ω resistor The internal resistance of the battery is : 0.5 Ω 1/3 Ω 1/4 Ω 1 Ω

3. A parallel plate capacitor having cross-sectional area A and separation d has air in between the plates. Now an insulating slab of same area but thickness d/3is inserted be tween the plates as shown in figure having dielectric constant K(= 2). The ratio of new capacitance to its original capacitance will be, 2 : 1 8 : 5 6 : 5 4 : 1

4. The electric field at surface of a charged sphere of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance 3R/2 from the centre of the sphere is :- E E / 9 4E / 9 2E /3

5. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along with it another mass M/2 is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be :- √2T T T / √2 (√ 3/2) T

6. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures 200°C and 220°C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 400°C and 440°C, the rate of heat flow will be : 16.8J/s 8.0 J/s 4.0 J/s 44.0J/s

7. The moment of the force, F = 4i^ + 5j^ − 6k^ acting at (2,0, –3),about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by:- −8i^ − 4j^ − 7k^ −4i^ − j^ − 8k ^ −7i^ − 8j^ − 4k^ −7i^ − 4j^ − 8k^

8. From a circular disc of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc corresponding to a 60° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about an axis passing through the centre of the disc and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is 'K' times 'MR2 '. Then the value of 'K' is : 3 /4 5/12 1/4 1/8

9. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of same length and of same area of cross section, one of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires must be in the ratio of : 1 : 1 1 : 2 2 : 1 4 : 1

10. Kepler's third law states that square of period of revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is proportional to third power of average distance r between sun and planet i.e. T = Kr here K is constant. If the masses of sun and planet are M and m respectively then as per Newton's law of gravitation force of attraction between them is F =GMm /r2 , here G is gravitational constant. The relation between G and K is described as : GMK = 4π² K=G K= 1/G GK = 4π²

11. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (v ) to the escape velocity at a planet (v ) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is :- 1 : 2 1: 2√2 1 : 4 1: √2

12. Three particles, are placed at the corners of a right angle triangle with mutually perpendicular sides equal to 2√2 m (see figure). Taking the point of intersection of the two mutually perpendicular sides as the origin, find the position vector of centre of mass. 2(i^ + j^) 1 √2 (i^ + j^) 2/3(i^ + j^) 4/3(i^ + j^)

13. A particle starting from rest moves in a circle of radius r. It attains a velocity of V₀ m/s in the nᵗʰ round. Its angular acceleration will be: (V₀ /n) rad/s² (V₀² / 2n) rad/s² (2V₀² / 2πnr²) rad/s² (2V₀² / 2πnr²) rad/s²

14. A force F = 10y + 3y² acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 2 m is: 30 J 5 J 28 J 20 J

15. A resonance tube of an air column of length 40 cm resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 450 Hz. Ignoring end correction the velocity of sound in air is: 1020 ms⁻¹ 720 ms⁻¹ 620 ms⁻¹ 820 ms⁻¹

16. A wave is represented by the equation y = a sin(0.01x – 2t) where, a and x are in cm and t in second. Velocity of propagation of the wave is : 200 cm/s 10 cm/s 25 cm/s 50 cm/s

17. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C, and D are 2%, 1%, 3%, and 3% respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in the measurement of X, where: X = A¹ᐟ² · B² / (C³ · D¹ᐟ³) (3/13)% 16% –7 % 13 %

18. If m1 = m2 = 1kg then find out distance travelled by m1 in first 2 seconds. 1m 10m 20m 30m

19. The two lenses shown are illuminated by a beam of parallel light from the left. Lens B is then moved slowly toward lens A. The beam emerging from lens B is : Initially parallel and then diverging Always diverging Initially converging and finally parallel Always parallel

20. A concave lens of focal length, 25 cm is sandwiched between two convex lenses, each of focal length, 40 cm. The focal length in cm of the combined lens would be : 9 1 100 55

21. A short linear object of length L lies on the axis of a spherical mirror of focal length f at a distance u from the mirror. Its image has an axial length L′ equal to: L [ f / (u − f) ]¹ᐟ² L [ (u + f) / f ]¹ᐟ² L [ (u − f) / f ]² L [ f / (u − f) ]²

22. In an interference pattern the (n+4)th blue bright fringe and nth red bright fringe are formed at the same spot. If red and blue light have the wavelength of 7800 Å and 5200 Å then value of n should be: 2 4 6 8

23. In YDSE, λ = 500nm,d = 1.00 mm and D = 1.0 m. Find minimum distance from the central maxima for which the intensity is half of the maximum intensity. 2.5 × 10⁻⁴ m 1.25 × 10⁻⁴ m 3 × 10⁻⁶ m 4.3 × 10⁻⁵ m

24. Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would : Become double Become half Become one fourth Become four times

25. A 200W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength0.6 μm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient converting electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow light item its per second is :- 6.2 × 10²⁰ 3 × 10¹⁹ 1.5 × 10²⁰ 6 × 10¹⁸

26. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is :- 4λ 5λ (5/2) λ 3λ

27. In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in : Circuit (b) only Circuit (c) only Both circuits (a) and (c) Circuit (a) only

28. The output of the logic circuit shown is equivalent to a/an : NOR gate AND gate NAND gate OR gate

29. The incorrect statement about the property of a Zener diode is :- Zener voltage remains constant at breakdown It is designed to operate under reverse bias Depletion region formed is very wide p and n regions of zener diode are heavily doped

30. Assertion :- The dc and ac both can be measured by a hot wire instrument. Reason :- The hot wire instrument is based on the principle of heating effect of current. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. Assertion is true but Reason is false. Assertion is false but Reason is true.

31. In series R-L circuit, R = 3 Ω, L = 3H and emf of cell = 1 volt. Find current, 1 second after switch on 0.95 A 0.21 A 1.24 A 2.58 A

32. If 𝐇⃗ = −2 cos(ωt − kz) 𝐢̂ in an EMW propagating along +z axis, then electric field is given by: 𝐄⃗ = 753 cos(ωt − kz) 𝐣̂ 𝐄⃗ = 387 sin(ωt − kz) 𝐣̂ 𝐄⃗ = 753 cos(ωt + kz) 𝐣̂ 𝐄⃗ = −753 sin(ωt + kz) 𝐣̂

33. The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is 99. The permeability of the material in Wb/A⋅m is: (Permeability of free space μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ Wb/A⋅m) 4π × 10⁻⁷ 4π × 10⁻⁴ 4π × 10⁻⁵ 4π × 10⁻⁶

34. A metal cube of side 5 cm is charged with 6 μC. The surface charge density on the cube is 0.125 × 10⁻³ C⋅m⁻² 0.25 × 10⁻³ C⋅m⁻² 4 × 10⁻³ C⋅m⁻² 0.4 × 10⁻³ C⋅m⁻²

35. An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform cross-sectional tube XY (as shown in the figure) from end X to end Y. If K1 and K2 are the kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid at X and Y respectively, then the correct option is : K1 = K2 2K1 = K2 K1 > K2 K1 < K

36. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 25 Watts. The value of R is : 12 Ω 30 Ω 20 Ω 15 Ω

37. Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b, and c (a > b > c) and have surface charge densities σ, −σ, and σ respectively. If Vₐ, V_b, and V_c denote the potentials of the three shells, then for a = b + c, we have: Va = Vb = Vc Vc = Vb ≠ Va Va = Vc ≠ Vb Vc ≠ Vb ≠ Va

38. A Carnotengine,havinganefficiencyof20%asheat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 20 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is :- 99 J 90 J 80 J 100 J

39. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 15. If the temperature inside freezer is –33°C, the temperature of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is : –17°C –21°C –22°C –33°C

40. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at a pressure of 498 kPa and temperature 127°C. Its density is: (R = 8.3 J⋅mol⁻¹⋅K⁻¹) 0.3 kg/m³ 0.5 kg/m³ 0.2 kg/m³ 0.1 kg/m³

41. Assertion :- By increasing temperature, the peak emission wavelength of a black body shifts to lower wavelength. Reason:- Peak emission wavelength of a black body is proportional to the fourth power of temperature. Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. Assertion is True but the Reason is False. Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) and (b) (b) and (c) (c) and (d) (b) and (d)

43. A solid cylinder of mass 1 kg rolls up an inclined planeof angleof inclination30°. The centreof mass of cylinder has speed of 10 m/s. The distance travelled by the cylinder on the incline surface will be: (Take g = 10 m/s² ) 22 m 16 m 15 m 24 m

44. A certain number of sphereical drops of a liquid of radius 'r' coalesce to form a single drop of radius 'R' and volume 'V'. If 'T' is the surface tension of the liquid, then: energy = 4VT [(1/r) − (1/R)] is released energy = 3VT [(1/r) + (1/R)] is absorbed energy = 3VT [(1/r) − (1/R)] is released Energy is neither released nor absorbed

45. Match List-I with List-II (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)– (iii) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)– (i) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)– (iii) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)– (iii)

46. The amount of U²³⁵ to be fissioned to operate a 10 kW nuclear reactor is (approximately) 1.2 × 10⁻⁵ g/s 1.2 × 10⁻⁷ g/s 1.2 × 10⁻⁹ g/s 1.2 × 10⁻¹³ g/s

47. Anastronomical refractingtelescopeisbeingusedby an observer to observe planets in normal adjustment. The focal lengthsof theobjective andeyepieceused in the construction of the telescope are 20 m and 2 cm respectively. Consider the following statements about the telescope: (a), (b) and (c) (a), (c) and (d) (c), (d) and (a) (a),(b),(c) and (d)

48. Which of the following statements are correct? (C) and (E) only (B) and (D) only (A) and (B) only (B) and (C) only

49. Pitchof thescrew gaugeis0.5 mm andthereare100 divisionsonitscircular scale. Whennothingisput inbetween jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies 2 divisions below the reference line. While measuring the diameter of wire, it shows 8 divisions on main scale and 83rd division of circular scale coincides with reference line. The diameter of wire will be: 2.105 mm 2.405 mm 4.405 mm 4.624 mm

50. For a galvanometer of resistance 80Ω, to calculate its figure of merit, following experimental data is obtained. Calculate its figure of merit (in A/div) : 2 × 10⁻⁵ 5 × 10⁻⁴ 2 × 10⁻⁴ 4 × 10⁻⁵

51. The correct decreasing order of atomic radii (pm) of Li, Be, B and C is Be > Li > B > C Li > Be > B > C C > B > Be > Li Li > C > Be > B

52. Total number of stereoisomers of given compound? CH =CH.CHCl.CHBr.CH=CHCH3 4 5 6 8

53. The R/S configuration of these compounds are respectively : R, R R, S S, S None of these

54. Baeyer’s reagent is : Acidic potassium permanganate solution Acidic potassium dichromate solution Cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium permanganate Hot, concentrated solution of potassium permanganate

55. Increasing order of stability of following resonation structure. I > II > III I > III > II II > III > I III > II > I

56. Which of the following molecules has "NON ZERO" dipole moment value? CCl4 HI CO2 BF3

57. Lucas reagent produces cloudiness immediately with :- 1-propanol 2-butanol 2-methyl-2-propanol 2-methyl-1-propanol

Both Assertion and Reason are correct Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

59. Suppose following reaction : Intramolecular H-bonding Intermolecular H-bonding Higher molecular mass than o-nitrophenol p-nitrophenol is major product of reaction

60. Which indicator is used in the titration of sodium hydroxide against oxalic acid and what is the colour change at the end point? Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow Alkaline KMnO4, colourless to pink Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour

61. Match List-I with List-II : A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

62. Which of the following reagents cannot distinguish between glucose and fructose ? Tollens' reagent Fehling's solution Benedict' solution All of these

63. Which of the following pair have same hybridisation? ClO₄⁻ & ClO₂⁻ SF₄ & CCl₄ BF₃ & NF₃ CO₂ & SO₂

64. London forces are present in - Polar - polar molecule Nonpolar - non polar molecule Polar - nonpolar molecule Ionic compound

65. Which of the following property increases regularly from carbon to fluorine ? I.P. E.A. Shielding constant All of these

66. Assertion : Be & Al show's diagonal relationship due tosimilarouter most electronic configuration. Reason: They have similar value of ionic potential. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct for the Assertion. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct for Assertion. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

67. Which of the following cation have pseudo inert gas configuration ? Sn⁺⁴ Sn⁺² Ga⁺ Ge⁺²

68. IUPAC name of the complex [Co(H₂NCH₂CH₂NH₂)₃]₂(SO₄)₃ is: Tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)cobalt(III) sulphate Tri(ethane-1,2-diamine)cobaltate(III) sulphate Tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)cobalt(II) sulphate Tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)cobalt(II) disulphate

69. Amongs hydrides of 15th group element, which has least MP & BP. NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3

70. Which of the following statements is/are correct. (i) only (ii), (iii) (i), (ii) (i), (ii), (iv)

71. Assertion: Geometrical isomerism isnotpossible in tetrahedral complex having two different unidentate ligandscoordinated withcentral metal ion. Reason : Tetrahedral complexes do not show geometrical isomerism because the relative position of unidentate ligands attach to central metal atom are same w.r.t. each other. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. Assertion is true, Reason is false. Assertion is false, Reason is true.

72. Hypo solution reacts with AgBr to form which complex ion ? [Ag(S₂O₃)₂]³⁻ [AgS₂O₃]⁻ [Ag₂(S₂O₃)₃]⁴⁻ [Ag₂S₂O₃]²⁻

73. Dimethyl glyoxime is used for the test of ______ in alkaline medium. Co²⁺ Zn²⁺ Mn²⁺ Ni²⁺

74. Rate of formation of SO₃ in the following reaction: 2SO₂ + O₂ → 2SO₃ is 40 g min⁻¹ Hence, rate of disappearance of O₂ is: 32 g min⁻¹ 8 g min⁻¹ 20 g min⁻¹ 16 g min⁻¹

250 / 3 min 200 / 3 min 60 min 90 min

76. Two liquids A and B on mixing form an ideal solution. At 300 K, the vapour pressure of solution containing1 moleof A and3 moleof B is550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 more mole of B is further added to this solution, the vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure of A and B in their pure state (in mm of Hg) is respectively: 400, 600 500, 500 600, 400 400, 400

A is conductor, B and C are insulator A is conductor, B is insulator and C is semiconductor A is insulator, B is conductor and C is semiconductor A is semiconductor, B and C are insulator

Ag > Cu > Al > Na Al > Na > Ag > Cu Cu > Ag > Na > Al Na > Al > Cu > Ag

79. In the discovery of canal rays, the smallest and lightest positive ion was obtained from - Helium Hydrogen Chlorine Oxygen

80. Consider the following graph for the reaction KQ;K=Q K=Q;KQ KQ K>Q;K=Q;K<Q

81. A reaction A + B – q → C + D occurs in a system and entropy of system increases. The reaction will be : Possible only at high temperature Possible only at low temperature Not possible at any temperature Possible at any temperature

82. Calculate standard enthalpy of formation of –712 kJ/mol –553 kJ/mol –822 kJ/mol +712 kJ/mol

83.Assertion (A) : For substance such as sodium chloride the term formula mass is used instead of molecular mass. Reason(R) : In the solid state sodium chloride does not exist as a single entity(discrete molecule). Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A). (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

84. Which reaction move in forward direction when following changes are performed at equilibrium ? Match column-I with column-II. P → D ; Q → A, B ; R → C ; S → B P → C ; Q → B ; R → A, B ; S → D P → D ; Q → C ; R → A ; S → A, B P → A, B ; Q → C ; R → D ; S → A

85. The compound that does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a positive carbylamine test is : Pyridine N-methylaniline Triethylamine Aniline

86. Match the column: (A) → r ; (B) → s ; (C) → p ; (D) → q (A) → s ; (B) → r ; (C) → p ; (D) → q (A) → p ; (B) → q ; (C) → s ; (D) → r (A) → p ; (B) → q ; (C) → r ; (D) → s

87. For an endothermic reaction: B and D C and D A and B A and C

88. A and B are Chain isomer Enantiomer Position isomer Functional group isomer

89. 1.0 g of H2 has same number of molecules as in: 14 g of N2 18 g of H2O 16 g of CO 28 g of N2

90. 0.3780 g of an organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 g of silver chloride in carius estimation. Calculate the % of chlorine present in the compound. 37.57% 43.12% 57% 85%

91. Select the pair in which both the species have see saw shape - XeO₂F₂, SiF₄ XeO₂F₂, IO₂F₂⁻ TeCl₄, ICl₄⁻ BrO₃F, XeOF₂

92. Correct order of bond angle is - SO₄²⁻ > SO₂ > SO₃ SO₃ > SO₄²⁻ > SO₂ SO₃ > SO₂ > SO₄²⁻ SO₂ > SO₃ > SO₄²⁻

93. 93. Arrange the following species in increasing order of ionic radius:N³⁻, O²⁻, F⁻, Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺ N³⁻ > O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺ > Mg²⁺ > Al³⁺ N³⁻ = O²⁻ = F⁻ = Na⁺ = Mg²⁺ = Al³⁺ Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ < O²⁻ < N³⁻ O²⁻ < F⁻ < Na⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Al³⁺ < N³⁻

94. Which elements in 3d-series shows highest & lowest enthalpy of atomization respectively. V, Zn Cr, Zn Cr, Mn Mn, Sc

95. When iodine is dissolved in aqueous potassium iodide, KI3 is formed. The shape of anionic part is : Linear Angular Triangular See-Saw

96. A 0.18% w/v aqueous solution of a weak monoprotic acid (molar mass = 180 g mol-1 ) at 300 K has observed osmotic pressure of 0.369 atm. What will be its van't Hoff factor (i). 1.2 1.5 1 0.5

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. Assertion is true but Reason is false. Both Assertion and Reason are false.

98. Standard cell potential for the following cell is –347.4 kJ –231.6 kJ –115.8 kJ –463.2 kJ

99. Base ionization constant for aniline (C₆H₅NH₂) is 4 × 10⁻¹⁰. Calculate value of equilibrium constant for following reaction: 2.5 × 10⁻⁵ 2.5 × 10⁵ 2.5 × 10⁻¹⁰ 4 × 10⁻⁴

100. Choose correct option for following reaction. BCl3 is an oxidant LiAℓH4 is an oxidant It is a disproportionation reaction It is not a redox reaction

101. Arrange the following taxonomic categories in correct ascending order with reference to mango - e → a → b → d → c e → a → b → c → d e → a → d → c → b e → d → a → b → c

102. Organisms which are unicellular eukaryotes, work as the chief producers in the oceans and have silica in their cell-wall. They float on water surface, such organisms belong to :- Euglenoids Slime moulds Dinoflagellates Diatoms

103. Sporophyte of Funaria is :_ Free living Differentiated into root, leaf and stem Differentiated into foot, seta and capsule Possess root like, leaf like and stem like structures

104. Multicellular gametophyte is/are present in :- Only D Only B and D Only A, B and D A, B, C and D

105. Which character of flower is represent by floral formula but not by floral diagram ? Aestivation Placentation Position of ovary Adhesion of stamen

106. Statement I : In papaya and date palm, only xenogamy occurs but autogamy and geitonogamy cannot occur. Statement II : Papaya and date palm are dioecious plants. Both statement I & II are correct Both statement I & II are incorrect Statement I is correct & Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect & Statement II is correct

107. Assertion : Immediately after light becomes unavailable, the biosynthesis process continues for some time, and then stops. Reason : Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis does not directly depend on light but is dependent on the products of light reaction. Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. Assertion is True but the Reason is False Both Assertion & Reason are False.

108. Which enzyme converts sucrose into glucose and fructose? Maltase Invertase Amylase Glucosidase

109. What happens to pyruvate in the absence of oxygen during the fermentation process ? It is converted into acetyl CoA It is turned into ethanol and CO2 It is used in the citric acid cycle. It is broken down into glucose

110. Which of the following phytohormones delay senescence thus, the fruits can be left on the tree longer so as to extend the market period? Ethephon Indole-3-acetic acid Gibberellic acid Abscisic acid

111. If the stressful external conditions are localised or remain only for a short duration, the organism has alternatives, are :- Migration suspension Both (1) and (2) Competition

112. According to Alexander von Humboldt the relation between species richness and area on logarithmic scale are described by equation- log S = log C + Z log A, where - S = Slope of line; A = Area Z = Species richness; A = Area C = Y-intercept; Z = Regression coefficient S = Species richness; A = Slope of line

113. Match list-I and II & select the correct option. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

114. Which one of the following statement about Histone is correct ? Histones are organised to form a unit of 10 molecules The pH of histone is slightly alkaline Histone are rich in amino acids lysine and tryptophan Histones carry negative charge in the side chain

115. Which of the following RNA play structural role in ribosome ? mRNA tRNA rRNA snRNA

116. Enzyme which help in joining Okazaki fragments ? DNA dependent DNA polymerase DNA dependent RNA polymerase DNA ligase DNAse

117. Which of the following statement is correct regarding "Biodiversity loss". Habitat loss & fragmentation is the main reason of biodiversity loss. Drought and floods is main reason of biodiversity loss. Economic exploitation is main reason of biodiversity loss Predation is main reason for biodiversity loss

118. How many examples are related with In - situ Conservation Biosphere reserve, Hot - Spot, wild life Safari, Cryopreservation, Seed bank, Gene bank, National Parks, Botanical Garden 3 4 2 5

119. Decomposition is one of the important functional aspect of ecosystem, about which of the following statements is not correct ? Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process. Warm & Moist condition favours decomposition. Lignin, Chitin & Suberin favour decomposition Nitrogen & sugar content favour decomposition

120. Detritivores Breakdown detritus into smaller particles this process is called - Fragmentation Humification Decomposition Catabolism

121. Starfish Pisaster is the Important Predator in Intertidal communities of :- Indian Pacific coast Middle Pacific Coast East Indian lakes American Pacific coast

122. Select incorrect statement regarding :- Only b Only c a, b, c Only d

123. Assertion : In Tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3' end in a template independent manner. Reason : Split gene arrangement represents probably an ancient feature of the genome. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion Assertion is true but Reason is false Assertion is false but Reason is true Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

124. Read the following statements and answer the correct one: Statement-I is true but statement-II is false Statement-I is false but statement-II is true Both statements are false Both statements are true

125. Which of the following is the main enzyme of transcription ? DNA dependent DNA polymerase DNA dependent RNA polymerase RNA dependent DNA polymerase Peptidyl transferase

126. Which of the following is a Mendelion disorder ? Down's syndrome Klinefelter's syndrome Turner's syndrome Sickle-cell anaemia

127. Genera like A and B produce two kinds of spores. What is 'A' and 'B' respectively ? A–Psilotum B–Selaginella A–Psilotum B–Salvini A–Equisetum B–Salvinia A–Selaginella B–Salvinia

128. Which of the following statement is incorrect about pollen grains viability ? It is highly variable It depends upon prevailing temperature and humidity. Rice and wheat pollen grains lost viability within 30 minutes of their release. In all members of Rosaceae Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, pollen grains maintain viability for months.

129. Which is not correctly matched ? Agar-agar – Red algae Algin – Brown algae Carrageen – Red algae r-Phycoerythrin – Green algae

130. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? Simple tissue have cells similar in structure and function. Fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are examples of secondary meristems Sclerieds are dead cells with highly thickened walls and very narrow cavities Xylem fibers have highly thickened walls and obliterated central lumen.

131. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? Bulliform cells are large colourless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick walled cells called conjunctive tissue. Inter fascicular cambium is formed by the cells of medullary rays during secondary growth. Lenticels are lens shaped openings which occur in most woody trees.

132. Match List-I with List-II (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

133. Fill in the blanks in the following statement with the appropriate option. C3 , PGA C4 , OAA C3 , OAA C4 , PEP

134. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ? Destroy dicot weeds in fields - 2, 4-D Induce Parthenocarpy - Auxins Help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages- Gibberellins Help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings- Auxins

135. Given below are two statements Both statement-I and statement-II are correct. Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect. Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

136. A taxon is a :- Group of closely related plants Group of closely related Animals Taxonomic group of any Rank Group of closely related organisms interfertile with each other

137. Find the incorrect about lichens :- They are symbiotic organisms They are made up of two different organisms In lichen the alga is mycobiont and fungus is phycobiont In them algae prepare food for itself and for fungal partner also

138. In angiosperm egg apparatus of embryo sac is - One celled Two celled Three celled Eight celled

139. The Z scheme in photosynthesis derives its name from: Its zigzag pattern on a graph plotting redox potential against electron carriers. Its zero-energy state after the transfer of electrons Its zone of high electron density within the chloroplast. Its zenithal position within the thylakoid membrane.

140. Assertion (A) : Predators help in maintaining species diversity in a community by reducing the intensity of competition among competing prey species. Reason (R) : Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A. A is correct but R is not correct A is not correct but R is correct.

141. If two species compete for the same resource, they could avoid competition by choosing different times for feeding or different foraging patterns. This phenomenon is called :- Resource partitioning Biotic potential Brood parasitism competitive release

142. If adenine makes 40% of the dsDNA molecules, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine ? T = 40%, G = 10%, C = 10% T = 20%, G = 40%, C = 20% T = 10%, G = 10%, C = 40% T = 40%, G = 20%, C = 20%

143. What is the role of RNA polymerase-II in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ? Transcribe rRNA (28S, 18S and 5.8S) Transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA Transcribes precursor of mRNA Transcribes only snRNA

144. How many in the following are not example of Ex-situ conservation ? 1 4 2 5

145. Which of the following is/are correct matching ? i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

146. Following given table is regarding ABO blood group, Identify W, X, Y, Z. W-IᴬI⁰ , X-IᴮI⁰ , Y-I⁰I⁰ , Z-A B W-IᴬI⁰ , X-IᴮI⁰ , Y-A B , Z-I⁰I⁰ W-IᴮI⁰ , X-IᴬI⁰ , Y-A B , Z-I⁰I⁰ W-IᴮIᴬ , X-IᴬIᴬ , Y-A B , Z-I⁰I⁰

147. Which of the following statement is not correct ? Lenticels helps in the gaseous exchange in woody plant parts Phellogen is also called cork cambium Due to deposition of suberin cork is dead, impervious to water and gases Secondary cortex is also called bark

148. Lady finger, Petunia, Cotton, Makoi, Mustard, Chinarose, How many of the given example belonged to plant family having below floral formula. Six Four Three Two

149. Given below are two statements: Both statement-I and statement-II are correct. Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect. Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

150. Fill in the blanks in the following statement with the appropriate option. Cotton Coriander Larkspur Buttercup

151. Assertion :- Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into blood. Reason :- Smoking increases heart rate. Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. Assertion is True but the Reason is False. Both Assertion & Reason are False.

152. Which of the following is not a part of vulva ? Mons pubis Labia majora Uterus Clitoris

153. High concentration of CO2 in the tissue causes - Greater affinity of O2 with Hb Increase in pH as CO2 get dissolved in plasma Rapid dissociation of O2 from oxyhaemoglobin Decrease the activity of carbonic anhydrase

154. If gene migration happens multiple times it is called Gene flow Genetic drift Genetic recombination Natural selection

155. Myasthenia gravis is ___(A)___ disorder- Genetical Autoimmune Age related Hormonal deficiency

156. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? Fertilization – Fusion of male and female gamete Insemination – Transfer of semen in vagina Fertilization site – Uterine cavity Sex of baby – Determined by Father

157. Assertion : AIDS and Hepatitis-B are sexually transmitted infections. Reason : AIDS and Hepatitis-B caused by virus. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. Assertion is true but Reason is false. Assertion is false but Reason is true Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

158. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? Pelvic girdle consist of 2 coxal-bones Pubic symphysis is a type of cartilaginous joint Sternum is a flat bone on ventral midline of thorax Last five pairs of ribs are called floating ribs

159. Functional unit between foetus and mother is known as - Umblical-cord Placenta Chorion Decidua

160. Which of the following option is not correct ? Thalassemia → Autosomal dominant disorder Sickle cell Anemia → Qualitative disorder SCID → ADA gene mutation Phenyl Ketonuria → Autosomal recessive disorder

161. Statement-I : Elephantiasis are transmitted by bite of female mosquito vectors. Statement-II : Ascariasis are transmitted by contaminated food and water. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

162. During the Isolation and purification process for recombinant DNA technology, the substance that causes the DNA to precipitate is the ................ Ethidium Bromide Salt Ethanol EDTA

163. Out of the following, identify the first and most vital step of PCR : Denaturation Annealing Extension DNA primer Annealing

164. Transgenic models exist for which of the following human diseases : Only a, d and e Only a, b and d a, b, c and d a, b, c, d and e

165. Which of the following is true regarding PCR ? Primer extension occurs at 40° to 60°C Annealing involves binding of probes at 72°C. Denaturation involve heating at 94°C. Reverse transcriptase is involved in extension step.

166. For effective treatment of the disease, early, diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. .................. a molecular diagnostic technique based on antigen antibody reaction is very useful for early detection ? Hybridisation Southern Blotting Western Blotting ELISA

167. Match List-I with List-II: A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

168. Erythropoietin hormone produced by ............ Bone marrow cell β cell of pancreas α cell of pancreas J.G. cell of kidney

169. Choose the correct statement Limulus is called pearl oyster Physalia is also called portuguese man of war. Ancylostoma is living Fossil Pinctada is also called Hookworm

170. Match List-I with List -II A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

171. Diuresis is prevented by: Renin from JG cell via switching off the osmoreceptors ANF from atria of the heart Aldosterone from adrenal medulla Vasopressin from Neurohypophysis

172. In _______ organisms bear hallow and pneumatic long bones. Macropus Orinthorthynchus Hemidactylus Neophron

173. What is the correct order (old to recent) of periods in Paleozoic era? Silurian, Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian Permian, Devonian, Silurian, Carboniferous Silurian, Carboniferous, Permian, Devonian

174. Select incorrect statement. Metamerism is characteristic of annelida Water canal system present in echinoderms Comb plate are present in ctenophores Cniboblost present in cniderians

175. Enzyme ________ is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogen to fibrin. Epinephrin Thrombin Renin Thrombokinase

176. After S-phase of cell cycle amount of DNA become _________ as compared to gamete of organism. Select correct option to fill in the blank. Double Similar Four time Half

177. In the above diagram of cell cycle select the phase at which centriole duplication occurs. B A E D

178. Statement-I : During meiosis bivalents are clearly visible in pachytene. Statement-II : During meiosis crossing over occurs in pachytene. Read the above statements & choose correct option: Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

179. Diagramatic change occurs in :- Metaphase-I Anaphase-II Anaphase-I Telophase-II

180. ‘Lub’ sound of Heart is caused by the___________. closure of the semilunar valves opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves opening of the semilunar valves closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves

181. Part of chromosome after secondary constriction is called :- Kinetochore Centromere Satellite Telomere

182. Match the list-I with list-II (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

183. Identify the correct pair : Alkaloid - Diterpene Toxins - Morphine Drugs - Codeine Lectins - Concanavalin-A

184. How many of the following statements are incorrect? 4 3 2 1

185. Match the list-I with list-II a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

186. Barrier method of contraception for female doesn't include :- Diaphragms Cervical caps Vaults Nirodh

187. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in ______ . Defense mechanism of body Clotting of blood Transport of CO2 in the blood To maintain osmotic balance of blood

188. Assertion :- Divergent evolution is based on adaptive radiation. Reason :- Wings of butterfly & birds show divergent evolution. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. Assertion is true but Reason is false. Assertion is false but Reason is true. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

189. Which contraceptive pill give anti-estrogenic action? Combination pill Mini-Pill Saheli Progesterone only pills

190. Read the following statement carefully- Two One Three Four

191. During parturition, oxytocin hormone is released from- Foetal Pituitary Maternal Pituitary Maternal Hypothalamus Placenta

192. Ethidium bromide is a stain that specifically bind to DNA and appears _______ if viewed under ultraviolet light. Red Blue Yellow Bright orange

193. Which of the following is a correct statement about application of PCR (Polymerase chain Reaction)? A and B B, C and D A, B, C and D Only C

194. Given below are two statements:- Both statement-I and statement-II are false Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false. Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true. Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

195. Assertion (A) : Using biotechnology, human insulin can be produced in bacterial cells. Assertion (R) : To produced human insulin the A, B, and C polypeptides chain of human insulin are produced in bacterial cells separately then extracted and finally combined by creating disulfide bonds. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion If assertion is true but reason is false. If both assertion and reason are false

196. Select characteristic of smooth muscle in given options A, B & C A, C & D B, C & D A, B, & D

197. Select correct statement during muscular contraction. 'H' zone disappears & 'A' band wider '1' band reduces in length and H zone disappears Myosin hydrolyzes ADP, and releasing AMP & P1 Z-lines attached to myosin are pulled inwards.

198. Read the following statements (A-D) & choose the correct option having correct statements : A and B only A, B and D A and C only B and D only

199. Which of the following statements is not correct ? Cells have many membrane bound minute vesicles having enzymes called microbodies. Each chromosomes essentially has a primary constriction called kinetochore. Plastids which store proteins are called aleuroplast. Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus.